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First, why would a born again Christian want to mock other Christians with disrespectful, inflammatory and highly offensive material such as your picture of Bro. Peter Ruckman with 666 stamped across his forehead? In my opinion you are in violation of the rules of this board, but more importantly in violation of the Scriptures where they deal with proper Christian conduct. "Let your conversation be as it becometh the gospel of Christ" Php 1:27. I don't think your conduct is becoming to the eternal Son of God, the Lord Jesus Christ. And again, you might want to re-read the rules for this board:

1. No ad hominem: no name calling, insults, personal attacks, etc.
2. No trolling, flaming or spamming. No hateful, offensive or illegal material

Now, as to your comments about Luther. Wasn't it Luther who called the Epistle of James an "Epistle of straw" and would not have the Epistle of James "in my Bible to be numbered among the true chief books?"

"As to your earlier assertion that "many" Reformers believed the Comma to be genuine, could you name some?"

It wasn't my assertion. Brandplukt stated: " The point is clear. Not all of the reformers believed the Comma was genuine.", to which I replied: Not all of the reformers believed the Comma was genuine" means that many reformers DID believe the Comma was genuine. You yourself admit that the Comma suddenly showed up in Luther's Bible in 1582. Who put it their? The Pope? A heretic? JW's? No doubt someone during the Reformation who believed that it belonged there. Wesley believed it belonged their. The AV translators believed it belonged there. Reina (Spanish 1602) thought it belonged there. Tyndale believed that it belonged their in 1526. The Polish translators thought it belonged there in 1632. The Calvinists over in Geneva put it in their English translation - the Geneva 1560-1575. Calvin said: "The whole of this verse has been by some omitted. Jerome thinks that this has happened through design rather than through mistake, and that indeed only on the part of the Latins. But as even the Greek copies do not agree, I dare not assert any thing on the subject. Since, however, the passage flows better when this clause is added, and as I see that it is found in the best and most approved copies, I am inclined to receive it as the true reading. {1} And the meaning would be, that God, in order to confirm most abundantly our faith in Christ, testifies in three ways that we ought to acquiesce in him. For as our faith acknowledges three persons in the one divine essence, so it is called in so really ways to Christ that it may rest on him." Online Bible, Calvin's Notes. It shows up in the Bishop's Bible in 1568. In fact, I'm hard pressed to think of an English version that doesn't have the Comma before 1880.

Now will you answer my questions? Weren't the AV translators translating from "the original"? Their translation of "the original Greek" includes 1 John 5:7. Don't Textual Critics claim that the AV is a "valid translation"? Don't Textual Critics also claim that the AV was "adequately translated from its source texts"? Don't Textual Critics claim that the AV "is the word of God"? Haven't some Modern Versions Users stated that "the King James Version is perfect, inerrant, 100% God's word"?

"The Comma's pedigree, ironically, is entirely Latin."

Not according to Calvin. Not according to Gill. Not according to the FACTS!!! It is found in "the original" or "the original languages" or "the original language manuscripts" or "the Greek." Entirely Latin??? It's in the Spanish, in the Polish, in the German, even in Luther's Bible according to you in 1582. It's in the Italian, French, Dutch, Russian, and English. Entirely in Latin? I learned a long time ago that textual critics can't be trusted when it comes to weighing the evidence! Critics of the AV are like some liberal politicians that think that since America can be divided into White, Black, Latino, Oriental and Native American that each group should only get one vote - one vote for the Whites, one for the Blacks, one for the Latinos, one vote for the Oriental and one for the Native American. Which effectively would eliminate the voice of the MAJORITY of Americans, which happen to be White. When in fact ALL the evidence should be recognized - ALL of the Whites, Blacks, Latinos, Orientals and Natives - not just Greek, not just Latin.

It is amazing how quickly critics of the AV will fabricate theories that circumvent all the facts, in order to protect their abhorrent doctrine.

Tyndale believed that it belonged their in 1526.

Then why is it bracketed out in his NT?

Thanks for the information! That could mean (depending on what you mean by "brackets") he was aware that there was some doubt about the verse and thus bracketed it. He thought it was valid enough to include it "with doubt" - if that is what the brackets signify.

Weren't the AV translators translating from "the original"?

They were translating from a hybrid text, and despite what their title page says, not every word in the KJV is translated from the original languages. (And in the case of the Comma, there is no "original Greek" as the original language is Latin!)

The AV most certainly was translated from "the original" - every word. "The original languages" in this case were Greek and Hebrew with the aid of English, German, Spanish, Latin, Dutch, etc.