I think that we may now be able to construct a reasonably accurate definition of “pure” that would be acceptable to Will Kinney based on some statements he has made:
“As for Jeremiah 34:16 the plural “ye” is the more correct Hebrew reading, but even if we go with “he” the basic meaning of the passage is still not changed at all.”
“God’s pure words of truth are found in any King James Bible you can buy in the stores today”
According to Will any King James Bible is pure if you can find it in a store. Apparently the edition (yes, even the “PCE”) does not matter.
Also, in at least one place in the KJV a word with an entirely different meaning may be substituted for the “more correct” word in the text as long as the passage has the same “basic meaning” after the alternative word has been substituted for the “more correct” word.
One might wonder how many other places in the KJV that this word substitution could occur and still be considered “pure” according to Will.
Further, does Will’s standard apply to other versions as well? What if other versions have different wording from the KJV but are still able to maintain the “basic meaning”? Might some other translations actually be “pure” after all?