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Hi everyone!

I'm completely new here. I just signed in on the KJV-Only board so I won't bore anyone with that.

BibleNerd - perfect tense is always interesting. One of my mentors explained the perfect tense to me like this:
"It happened once in the past, and its effects are continuing through to today."

As in 1 John 1:1
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
both "have heard" and "have seen" are in the perfect ind. act., while "we have looked upon" and "have handled" are both in the aorist tense. It appears John is drawing two pictures. The first is what was supernatural about Jesus Christ -
"we have heard him and it is still ringing in our ears, we have seen him and in my mind he stands before me still".
The second relates to his physical body (to make a point against the gnostics heresy) that they actually looked upon him, and felt his body - this Word of life.

To try and apply this sense of the Perfect to Rev 3:20 is a little awkward but still do-able. It is not like the imperfect tense, being an action occuring in the past and is ongoing, but is an action that occured in the past is ongoing and continuing into the future. Imperfect doesn't denote that it continues into the future.

Behold, I have taken my stand (ready, having a steadfast mind, unwavering and unmoving) at the door [and am still standing (steadfast and unwavering) and will continue to stand (until I enter in)] and I knock (am knocking, continue to knock). (paraphrased)

And if any one (any man) may hear my voice and may open the door, I will come in unto him and I will eat with him, and he with me.

In Attic Greek we call that conditional phrase a "Future Less Vivid" because the choice is a potential - not an absolute (free will you know), however the response IS absolute (Jesus WILL do it). I know there is a different terminology in NT Greek. What do you label it as?

When Christ says: I will come in unto him - because of pros used with eiserchomai, it denotes a movement from one place into another, in this case almost a physical movement - [perhaps even in actuality it is physical because Christ does take up residency in our bodies ("you are the temple of the Holy Ghost")] - this is an Accusative of Place to Which. At one time He is out - then He is in. I think that's important because of John 15:5 "... he that abides in me... and I in him, that one will bear much fruit..."; and v.10 "If you keep my commandments, you shall abide in my love..."

I am more an Ancient Greek person. Is there something special about perfect tense limiting the action of the verb following? I cannot recall any teaching about that regarding the perfect tense. I usually just struggle through the monstrous clauses of the Attic Greek. Ancient Greek does not hinder Koine. It's more like Shakesperean English evolving/devolving into Modern English - perhaps not as severe as English. Only a few things are different. It would be more difficult to go from Koine into Attic Greek.

Just IMHO. Get out your red pencils and have at it!!


greetings - cyncia

John 15:12 - "This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you."