I have a two fold question about this verse. First part of the question has to do with the grammar. Looking at various manuscripts I notice that some of them
have punctuation marks in them and others don't. I would assume that the original texts did not have the punctuation marks in them and that this would
have been added later. So the first part of the question is who added the punctuation to this verse. The second part relates to the textual families, I
notice that the Byzantine/Majority Text/TR manuscripts tend to have the punctuation, although some of them don't. Is the exceptions within this family of
texts?
Thanks for your consideration and help.
Thanks for your consideration and help.
