Euthymius, you can probably answer this. Did the KJV translators borrow from the LXX here? Was the Hebrew sa'ir translated into saturos (or the early Greek rendition) in the LXX? It appears that satyr is a cross between both sa'ir and saturos. Any theories? Because, whenever I see the word satyr, I automatically picture little men who are human on the upper half and goat on the lower half. They are sometimes seen playing a pan flute, I believe, and are related back to Greek/Roman mythology.
I am sure that God's word is not telling us that little hairy goat men are going to "dance there" or "cry to" their fellows. The MVs render sa'ir in both verses as "wild goat" and "wild goats," which seems to be the more relevant translation. Didn't the KJV translators know what satyrs were in 1611? Satyrs have been around for a long time in mythology, similarly to the mythological image of the unicorn.





