Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?

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Exodus Six Verse Three	Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	Lead	[-]
Posts: 225 (07/02/2009 06:31:19) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Tags : None Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"? If the underlying Hebrew spelling shown at the bottom of this post, is the same Hebrew spelling that occurs 6518 times in the Ben Chayyim Hebrew *Scriptures* of 1525 A.D. , are Christians who openly profess to be Bible Believing Christians, honor-bound to believe that God's name is actually "JEHOVAH", no matter what the Jewish People or Hebrew Scholars say? 2 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version) states: ^16"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"... Exodus P.S. It seems to me that a professing Bible Believing Christian [a.k.a. Scripture Believing Christian] who uses the KJB as his primary Bible, and does not believe that God's name is "Jehovah", has no basis for his profession.
amarillo		#1	[-]
Posts: 3279 (07/02/2009 07:06:38) Administrator Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	buzz buzz buzz beneath the bonnet still? ok, let's rephrase the question: 1. Was the underlying Hebrew of "the LORD" given "by inspiration of God"? 2. Was the underlying Hebrew of "o kyrios" given "by inspiration of God"? 3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"? what if the answer's yes to all 3? Joseph Ng "For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven." Ps 119:89 KJB
77		#2	[-]
Posts: 690 (07/02/2009 07:18:57) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	77: We get it, Exodus, we really do - but I'll let you in on a little secret: this subject bores me to tears. Really. This question has been beaten into the ground. "Truly, good Christian reader, we never thought from the beginning, that we should need to make a new Translation, nor yet to make of a bad one of a good one ... but to make a good one better, or out of many good ones, one principle good one, not justly to be expected against; that hath been our endeavor, that our mark."
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#3	[-]
Posts: 226 (07/03/2009 02:14:04) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi 77: You wrote We get it, Exodus, we really do - but I'll let you in on a little secret: this subject bores me to tears. Really. This question has been beaten into the ground. 77, amarillo has previously rephrased the question to make it more acceptable: amarillo wrote: ok, let's rephrase the question: 1. Was the underlying Hebrew of "the LORD" given "by inspiration of God"? 2. Was the underlying Hebrew of "o kyrios" given "by inspiration of God"? *3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"?* what if the answer's yes to all 3? amarillo, I find question #3 interesting. Under different circumstances I might even consider starting a new topic with that title: However at this particular moment in time, I'd be concerned that 77 might be bored by such a new topic. Exodus. Last Edited By: Exodus Six Verse Three 07/04/2009 02:58:56. Edited 1 times.
amarillo		#4	[-]
Posts: 3287 (07/04/2009 03:13:00) Administrator Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Exodus Six Verse Three wrote: *3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"?* what if the answer's yes to all 3? amarillo, I find question #3 interesting. Under different circumstances I might even consider starting a new topic with that title: However at this particular moment in time, I'd be concerned that 77 might be bored by such a new topic. Exodus. thanks for NOT starting another topic! maybe it's just me, but the number of threads on this YHWH topic seems to outweigh the number of insights it's supposed to generate. but yes, pls post under this existing thread. i'll be happy to hear what u have to say about Question #3, if anything. Joseph Ng "For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven." Ps 119:89 KJB
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#5	[-]
Posts: 227 (07/04/2009 03:52:58) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi amarillo, Concerning the question #3, that you proposed: *[i.e. 3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"? ]* You wrote: thanks for NOT starting another topic! maybe it's just me, but the number of threads on this YHWH topic seems to outweigh the number of insights it's supposed to generate. *but yes, pls post under this existing thread.* i'll be happy to hear what u have to say about Question #3, if anything. amarillo, Your question is the main stumblng block to any ministry attempting to defend the name "Yahweh". To the best of my understanding, God has never indicated in a vocalized Hebrew text, [ e.g. A Hebrew text with vowel points ] that His name is or was "Yahweh" There is no underlying *vocalized* Hebrew text that clearly indicates that God's name is "Yahweh". There are several early Greek transcriptions [i.e. Iaoue and IaBe] that indicate that the original pronunciation of God's name *might have been "Yahweh"* but I am aware of no ["THUS SAITH THE LORD"] *vocalized* Hebrew Scripture that proves that; *The underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" is given "by inspiration of God"?* Amen Exodus P.S. Josephus states that the Tetragrammaton is composed of 4 vowels. It is questionable as to whether or not the initial "Yod" in YHWH is a vowel letter. Tiberian grammar rules do not allow an initial yod to be a vowel letter. however, The yod in "Elohiym" is indeed a "hiriq yod", indicating the vowel letter "i". but, the yod in Elohiym is not an initial yod. The right half of the table below shows a "hireq yod", although it was not clearly identified as a "hireq yod". The table indicates that the "yod" is silent, even though it appears in James Strong's transliteration of Hebrew Word #430. Other sources may transliterate Hebrew Word #430 as "Elohim" without a "Y" Last Edited By: Exodus Six Verse Three 07/04/2009 05:19:58. Edited 1 times.
amarillo		#6	[-]
Posts: 3288 (07/04/2009 06:03:40) Administrator Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Exodus Six Verse Three wrote: There is no underlying *vocalized* Hebrew text that clearly indicates that God's name is "Yahweh". There are several early Greek transcriptions [i.e. Iaoue and IaBe] that indicate that the original pronunciation of God's name *might have been "Yahweh"* but I am aware of no ["THUS SAITH THE LORD"] *vocalized* Hebrew Scripture that proves that; *The underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" is given "by inspiration of God"?* Amen sounds good. might be, maybe, nothing proven. thanks. Joseph Ng "For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven." Ps 119:89 KJB
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#7	[-]
Posts: 228 (07/04/2009 16:04:27) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi again amarillo. I decided to show how, if YHWH was actually composed of 4 Hebrew vowel letters, that situation *might* indicate that God's name is "Yahweh" [If one starts with a different set of Hebrew Vowel letters, *the conclusion is different] This method may or may not be legitimate using Tiberian Grammar rules.* The Assemblies of Yahweh and some other Sacred Name Ministries use this method, to defend their use of the name "Yahweh" So amarillo, The evidence I have shown above may be valid, but then again if Hebrew grammar rules do not allow an "initial yod" to be a "Hireq yod" the evidence shown above may be invalid FWIW, Exodus Last Edited By: Exodus Six Verse Three 07/04/2009 17:00:01. Edited 1 times.
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#8	[-]
Posts: 229 (07/05/2009 04:33:00) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi amarillo, It was you who invited comment on your question #3: I don't feel that I've done too well in answering your question. *[ i.e. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"? ]* amarillo, I'd be happy to hear what you have to say about Question #3, In fact, I'd be happy to hear what 77 has to say about your Question #3, if he was willing to respond to that question that you added to this topic. Exodus Last Edited By: Exodus Six Verse Three 07/05/2009 04:35:08. Edited 1 times.
amarillo		#9	[-]
Posts: 3291 (07/05/2009 18:09:54) Administrator Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	afaik, Christ, Paul, and others never bickered about this stuff. didn't matter. period. Thx. Joseph Ng "For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven." Ps 119:89 KJB
77		#10	[-]
Posts: 694 (07/05/2009 18:21:30) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"? 77: I dunno. It is certainly plausible, but, here's the rub: none of the NT writers wrote even a single verse on this subject. I am going to guess that the question, however interesting it is, is not an important one... Personally, I am no more concerned by the the KJV renders this (I frequently read and study from the KJV), than I am as to how other translations do (in my case, the RSV, and NKJV - my three main translations). "Truly, good Christian reader, we never thought from the beginning, that we should need to make a new Translation, nor yet to make of a bad one of a good one ... but to make a good one better, or out of many good ones, one principle good one, not justly to be expected against; that hath been our endeavor, that our mark."
Exodus Six Verse Three	Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#11	[-]
Posts: 230 (07/06/2009 03:49:54) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi amarillo, You wrote: afaik, Christ, Paul, and others never bickered about this stuff. didn't matter. period. Thx. Thank you for your answer, Exodus
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#12	[-]
Posts: 231 (07/06/2009 03:56:15) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	Hi 77, You wrote: 3. Was the underlying Hebrew of "YaHWeH" given "by inspiration of God"? 77: I dunno. It is certainly plausible, but, here's the rub: none of the NT writers wrote even a single verse on this subject. I am going to guess that the question, however interesting it is, is not an important one... Personally, I am no more concerned by the the KJV renders this (I frequently read and study from the KJV), than I am as to how other translations do (in my case, the RSV, and NKJV - my three main translations). 77. Thank you for your answer, Exodus
Exodus Six Verse Three	Re: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?	#13	[-]
Posts: 232 (07/08/2009 05:12:49) Reply Quote More My Recent Posts Message Me Connection Blocking Invite Ignore User's Posts Report Post	While many questions were dealt with on this thread, the one question that wasn't dealt with, was the question given in the title of this topic: Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"? Since Hebrew Word #3068 does occur 6518 times, in what is sometimes loosely defined as, *Hebrew Scriptures* that underly the Old Testament of the KJB, Are Christians under any Obligation to believe that: the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" was given "by inspiration of God"? amarillo felt that the question should be reworded. amarillo proposed the following question: 1. Was the underlying Hebrew of "the LORD" given "by inspiration of God"? Would it be more correct to ask the question that amarillo suggested: 1. Was the underlying Hebrew of "the LORD" given "by inspiration of God"? Is it possible that God never meant for Hebrew word #3068 to be pronounced "as it was written". Was it God's perfect will that Hebrew Word #3068 should be translated as "The LORD", as most MV's do? Certainly the editors of the Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicon of 1905, do not believe that Hebrew word #3068, which occus 6518 times in the Ben Chayyim Hebrew Text, was meant to be translated as "JEJHOVAH" ARE THEY RIGHT? Is it possible that God raised up Ben Chayyim, to point YHWH with 2 out of 3 of the precise same vowel points that are found in Adonay", *[ THIS CAN BE VERIFIED IN THE UPPER OF TWO IMAGES SHOWN ABOVE ]* hoping that the Hebrew reader would read "Adonay", when he saw that hybrid combination. That is what the editors of the Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexican of 1905, claim to be true. That is what the majority of Hebrew scholars are telling us, when they claim that "Jehovah" is not actually "God's name." Of course there *appears* to be some issues that need to be dealt with, if a believer is going to make that assumption., in his own personal Christian life. Exodus One issue is of course Bibleprotector's dogmatic assertion that God's name is "JEHOVAH", but there are other issues. Of course if Bibleprotector's assertion about "JEHOVAH" is incorrect, his assertion about the King James Bible would also be incorrect! Just in passing Bibleprotector defines himself as a KJBO Christian, who uses the PCE, as the perfect presentation of the KJB.

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Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?

Was the underlying Hebrew of "JEHOVAH" given "by inspiration of God"?

2 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version) states:

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